Q350 : Israel’s Failure to Uphold the Mosaic Covenant

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Q350 : Israel’s Failure to Uphold the Mosaic Covenant

Thank you in advance for attending to my question. I have been particularly confused with regards to how the Mosaic Covenant affects the postponement of the millennial Kingdom. Here are the details.

I own Dr. Andy Woods book, The Coming Kingdom. Very early in the book when he covers the Mosaic Covenant, he states in a couple of places that Israel's lack of compliance with this covenant, specifically Deuteronomy 17:15, is what is triggering the perpetual state of postponement of the Messianic Kingdom. However, I have not found an explanation that reconciles the fact that the NT seems to teach that the Mosaic Law is no longer in effect (see Romans 10:4; Galatians 3:15-19; Galatians 3:23-4:7; Hebrews 7:11-12; Hebrews 7:18; Ephesians 2:11-15; 2 Corinthians 3:3-11). If the Mosaic law is no longer in effect, how is Israel being held liable for non-compliance?

I haven't heard an explanation for this so I've been creating my own ideas while keeping in mind the unconditional Abrahamic Covenant. One idea that I had is that Israel triggered a very lengthy postponement because they rejected the Messiah while he was still on Earth, while the Mosaic law was still in effect. At the death of the testator, the Mosaic law was no longer in effect, but as a parting gift Israel still incurred curses from the Mosaic law through the events of AD 70. But because the Mosaic law is not the only place the Bible talks about Israel's repentance triggering the kingdom (Zech. 12-14), then what we are awaiting is not Israel's compliance with the Mosaic Covenant but Zech. 12, repentance on their part with regards to their Messiah.

Please lend me your thoughts and let me know if I am missing something. I know there's also the land Covenant to consider in Deuteronomy 30, but if that is its own Covenant then I am confused as to why Dr. Woods (whom I highly look up to) didn't specify compliance with that covenant instead of the Mosaic law.

Also, how does he know that Deuteronomy 17:15 is the primary condition for Israel to meet? And not all of the other 613 laws?

Thank you and God bless.

A350 : by Andy Woods

Thank you for your question. I’m sorry for my delayed response. It has become ever increasingly difficult for me to get to all of my email lately.

You raise an interesting point that I wish we had more clarity on from the Word of God. However, for what it’s worth, here is my take.

All of the verses that you cite concerning the nullification of the Mosaic Law relate to the believer in the Church Age. What must be remembered is that the nation of Israel still has a final week left (Dan. 9:27) in the Seventy Weeks prophecy given to Daniel (Dan. 9:24-27), which was given during the prior dispensation of the Law. So, in this sense, Israel still has some obligations under the Mosaic Law that the church does not.

Also, since Christ was the fulfillment of the Law of Moses (Matt. 5:17) and the Law of Moses points towards Christ (John 5:45-47), it is still necessary for them to fulfill that particular condition of the Mosaic law by receiving their king in order for the kingdom to come. Deuteronomy 17:15 is but a shadow of the ultimate reality of Jesus Christ, which the nation of Israel still has an obligation to enthrone.

Also, Israel wouldn’t be meeting any condition of the Land Covenant since that is a separate covenant given alongside the Mosaic Covenant (Deut. 29:1). The Land Covenant (Deut. 29-30) is a mere extension of the land promises of the unconditional and foundational Abrahamic Covenant and is therefore a different species entirely in comparison to the conditional Mosaic Covenant.

I hope this helps.

In Him,


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